
Why does only time has an infinite quality. All the other properties of the universe is not infinite?



Posted by THE JESUS
The most logical state is 0.
Expansion of matter viewed from an eternal perspective = nothing exists that requires conditions.



Posted by THE JESUS
"time must exist even if everythingh ceased to exist."
"Even in the supposed state of nothingness...there is something."
HERETICS! The topic should have been I THINK I HAVE AN ANSWER! You 2 have made Christ upset and someone will be burned at the stake for this! 😢


Posted by THE JESUS
"I would much prefer we speak of frivolous matters"
That would made me angrier than angriest.
Do it then, annoy my sensitive nature!

Posted by THE JESUS
The "interrogation" continues tomorrow, I am not allowed to be up this late. Good night!


Posted by red_aries
apparently religion is not compatible with physics.......

Posted by StefyleighPosted by red_aries
apparently religion is not compatible with physics.......
Sure it is, it depends on your position,,,click to expand


Posted by Stefyleigh
Scientifically things look for proof and validation.
Faith is validated by one's belief.
The two can be synonymous.




Posted by Stefyleigh
If one did not have faith in their convictions, one would not expend the energy to scientifically disprove it.
Faith in and of itself is prood enough and does not need validation.
If both.can require the leap, is there not synonymity?


Posted by xonsie
pelvic exam? ouch..............i don't know if i should even ask...tmi


Posted by StefyleighPosted by xonsie
pelvic exam? ouch..............i don't know if i should even ask...tmi
I am in my residency to be a nurse practitioner, and the current rotation is Obstetrics. So in between cases, as best I can, I attempt to answer these messages via my blackberry.click to expand


Posted by xonsiePosted by Stefyleigh
If one did not have faith in their convictions, one would not expend the energy to scientifically disprove it.
Faith in and of itself is prood enough and does not need validation.
If both.can require the leap, is there not synonymity?
Well I think this gets a little hairy: As I understand it, you are saying the source of a scientist's drive to prove or disprove something starts with "faith in their convictions". While I would say a scientist starts with their curiosity and is motivated by the need to separate fact from fiction.
They are not attached to the end result, but are ardent followers of process. That is the key difference...not synonymous at all. They would never believe that "faith in and of itself is proof enough" because in that case you have arrived at the conclusion without properly evaluating alternatives and making provisions for doubt.
Ironically, both sides in trying to assert themselves as being more "true" than the other ultimately fails to do so...that's where I see them being the same. The universe being ever expansive cannot be explained in its entirety by one or the other...at least not in a satisfactory way that would be accepted by both sides.
click to expand



Posted by xonsie
And the argument is not about acceptance or proof. It was only that faith and science could be synonymous.
You make rationale arguments, but you deviate from the original question.
1)My point made a while back very clearly addresses your question Science proves before it believes. Faith believes without proof. Not synonymous at all. Its a fundamental difference in PROCESS that you can't confuse one with the other
2)If you want to get technical, the original question is actually: Why does only time has an infinite quality. All the other properties of the universe is not infinite? ....
You've now changed the topic to building coalition...cooperation?...as in you now accept they may have different methods, but you are saying they'd be better if they weren't at odds with each other and forged cooperation to find better understanding of the universe?
But even, if only in failure, are the synonymous, then there is some cause for cases similar. If one can but prove it, in ONE instance, then the whole argument is mute.
Its actually the opposite. If one can prove it FALSE in one instance, then the whole argument is moot...otherwise you run into the problem of the false negative (typeIIerror). Case in point: everyone in the world strives to be happy, optimizing their resources (see Maslows hierarchy of needs)--this is your common goals argument--. But in striving to do so, there is not only difference in the means/methods by which everyone tries to achieve those things, but also much dissension as one person's means may be in direct conflict with another person's means, even though you can claim they are striving for a common goal (due to finite resources, zero-sum game etc)
Your point about science and religion working together has a nice ring to it...but I think it oversimplifies the situation. We're not just talking about finding a simple marriage between religion and science. Organized religion within itself can't even find consensus amongst its many sects and historically these differences have yielded more violence and further divisions of belief rather than cooperation. Heterogeneity in this case may be the answer to a more harmonious union...as they say the devil is in the details
But the question was more focused, and we must keep it narrow, in order to focus. we are talking in abstract, neither you nor I have



Posted by xonsie
lol...sorry i'm verbose...thanks for putting up with me
i'm such an aries...i've already reached the limit to the quote function on dxp...haha











Posted by Loyalist Rebel
What if paper is sanding paper? It will sand the rock hell out and give some nasty shape to scissors?
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